I'm trying to understand the semantics of async/await in an infinitely looping worker thread started inside a windows service. I'm a newbie at this so give me some leeway here, I'm trying to understand the concept.
The worker thread will loop forever (until the service is stopped) and it processes an external queue resource (in this case a SQL Server Service Broker queue).
The worker thread uses config data which could be changed while the service is running by receiving commands on the main service thread via some kind of IPC. Ideally the worker thread should process those config changes while waiting for the external queue messages to be received. Reading from service broker is inherently asynchronous, you literally issue a "waitfor receive" TSQL statement with a receive timeout.
But I don't quite understand the flow of control I'd need to use to do that.
Let's say I used a concurrentQueue to pass config change messages from the main thread to the worker thread. Then, if I did something like...
void ProcessBrokerMessages() {
foreach (BrokerMessage m in ReadBrokerQueue()) {
ProcessMessage(m);
}
}
// ... inside the worker thread:
while (!serviceStopped) {
foreach (configChange in configChangeConcurrentQueue) {
processConfigChange(configChange);
}
ProcessBrokerMessages();
}
...then the foreach loop to process config changes and the broker processing function need to "take turns" to run. Specifically, the config-change-processing loop won't run while the potentially-long-running broker receive command is running.
My understanding is that simply turning the ProcessBrokerMessages() into an async method doesn't help me in this case (or I don't understand what will happen). To me, with my lack of understanding, the most intuitive interpretation seems to be that when I hit the async call it would go off and do its thing, and execution would continue with a restart of the outer while loop... but that would mean the loop would also execute the ProcessBrokerMessages() function over and over even though it's already running from the invocation in the previous loop, which I don't want.
As far as I know this is not what would happen, though I only "know" that because I've read something along those lines. I don't really understand it.
Arguably the existing flow of control (ie, without the async call) is OK... if config changes affect ProcessBrokerMessages() function (which they can) then the config can't be changed while the function is running anyway. But that seems like it's a point specific to this particular example. I can imagine a case where config changes are changing something else that the thread does, unrelated to the ProcessBrokerMessages() call.
Can someone improve my understanding here? What's the right way to have
a block of code which loops over multiple statements
where one (or some) but not all of those statements are asynchronous
and the async operation should only ever be executing once at a time
but execution should keep looping through the rest of the statements while the single instance of the async operation runs
and the async method should be called again in the loop if the previous invocation has completed
It seems like I could use a BackgroundWorker to run the receive statement, which flips a flag when its job is done, but it also seems weird to me to create a thread specifically for processing the external resource and then, within that thread, create a BackgroundWorker to actually do that job.
You could use a CancelationToken. Most async functions accept one as a parameter, and they cancel the call (the returned Task actually) if the token is signaled. SqlCommand.ExecuteReaderAsync (which you're likely using to issue the WAITFOR RECEIVE is no different. So:
Have a cancellation token passed to the 'execution' thread.
The settings monitor (the one responding to IPC) also has a reference to the token
When a config change occurs, the monitoring makes the config change and then signals the token
the execution thread aborts any pending WAITFOR (or any pending processing in the message processing loop actually, you should use the cancellation token everywhere). any transaction is aborted and rolled back
restart the execution thread, with new cancellation token. It will use the new config
So in this particular case I decided to go with a simpler shared state solution. This is of course a less sound solution in principle, but since there's not a lot of shared state involved, and since the overall application isn't very complicated, it seemed forgivable.
My implementation here is to use locking, but have writes to the config from the service main thread wrapped up in a Task.Run(). The reader doesn't bother with a Task since the reader is already in its own thread.
Related
I am doing an IO wait operation inside a for loop now the thing is when all of the operations terminates I want to send the response to the server. Now I was just wondering that suppose two IO operation terminates exactly at the same time now can they execute code at the same time(parallel) or will they execute serially?
As far as I know, as Node is Concurrent but not the Parallel language so I don't think they will execute at the same time.
node.js runs Javascript with a single thread. That means that two pieces of Javascript can never be running at the exact same moment.
node.js processes I/O completion using an event queue. That means when an I/O operation completes, it places an event in the event queue and when that event gets to the front of the event queue and the JS interpreter has finished whatever else it was doing, then it will pull that event from the event queue and call the callback associated with it.
Because of this process, even if two I/O operations finish at basically the same moment, one of them will put its completion event into the event queue before the other (access to the event queue internally is likely controlled by a mutex so one will get the mutex before the other) and that one's completion callback will get into the event queue first and then called before the other. The two completion callbacks will not run at the exact same time.
Keep in mind that more than one piece of Javascript can be "in flight" or "in process" at the same time if it contains non-blocking I/O operations or other asynchronous operations. This is because when you "wait" for an asynchronous operation to complete in Javscript, you return control back to the system and you then resume processing only when your completion callback is called. While the JS interpreter is waiting for an asynchronous I/O operation to complete and the associated callback to be called, then other Javascript can run. But, there's still only one piece of Javascript actually ever running at a time.
As far as I know, as Node is Concurrent but not the Parallel language so I don't think they will execute at the same time.
Yes, that's correct. That's not exactly how I'd describe it since "concurrent" and "parallel" don't have strict technical definitions, but based on what I think you mean by them, that is correct.
you can use Promise.all :
let promises = [];
for(...)
{
promises.push(somePromise); // somePromise represents your IO operation
}
Promise.all(promises).then((results) => { // here you send the response }
You don't have to worry about the execution order.
Node.js is designed to be single thread. So basically there is no way that 'two IO operation terminates exactly at the same time' could happen. They will just finish one by one.
I have a working thread running all along the runtime, who generates events.
I can handle those events inside the UI thread by using disp = Windows::UI::Core::CoreWindow::GetForCurrentThread()->Dispatcher.
more precisely, I do the modifications to the UI by using disp->RunAsync(...) anywhere inside the working thread.
but I don't know how to do the inverted operation. I want to have some Async function inside the UI thread to perform operation (on some std::unique_ptr) in the working thread when I click on some button.
If I understand correctly you want to be able to run an async operation when a button is clicked, but on a specific thread to which you refer as your worker thread.
First - Since you want to use a resource in 2 threads you should not use unique_ptr and use shared_ptr since you share this resource between the two threads.
Second - if you don't necessarily have to run the action on a specific thread then you can simply use Windows::System::Threading::ThreadPool::RunAsync and capture the shared_ptr by value.
e.g:
namespace WST = Windows::System::Threading;
WST::ThreadPool::RunAsync(
ref new WST::WorkItemHandler(
[mySharedPtr](Windows::Foundation::IAsyncAction^ operation)
{
mySharedPtr->Foo();
}));
In case you have to run the operation on a specific thread then I assume you want to be able to append operations to an already running thread, otherwise you are creating a thread and you can use the above example.
So in order to append operations to an already running thread, that thread must have the functionality of getting a new operations and then running those operations in a synchronous order. This functionality is basically what the Dispatcher provides. This is what an Event Loop is, also called: message dispatcher, message loop, message pump, or run loop. Also you can find information by reading on the Recator\Proactor design pattern.
This CodeProject page shows one way of implementing the pattern, and you can use Winrt component to make it better \ more conveniant \ more familiar
I am using NSURLSession dataTaskWithURL:completionHandler. It looks like completionHandler is executed in a thread which is different than the thread(in my case, it's the main thread) which calls dataTaskWithURL. So my question is, since it is asynchronized, is it possible that the main thread exit, but the completionHandler thread is still running since the response has not come back, which is the case I am trying to avoid. If this could happen, how should I solve the problem? BTW, I am building this as a framework, not an application.Thanks.
In the first part of your question you seem un-sure that the completion handler is running on a different thread. To confirm this let's look at the NSURLSession Class Reference. If we look at the "Creating a Session" section we can see in the description for the following method the answer.
+ sessionWithConfiguration:delegate:delegateQueue:
Swift
init(configuration configuration: NSURLSessionConfiguration,
delegate delegate: NSURLSessionDelegate?,
delegateQueue queue: NSOperationQueue?)
Objective-C
+ (NSURLSession *)sessionWithConfiguration:(NSURLSessionConfiguration *)configuration
delegate:(id<NSURLSessionDelegate>)delegate
delegateQueue:(NSOperationQueue *)queue
In the parameters table for the NSOperationQueue queue parameter is the following quote.
An operation queue for scheduling the delegate calls and completion handlers. The queue need not be a serial queue. If nil, the session creates a serial operation queue for performing all delegate method calls and completion handler calls.
So we can see the default behavior is to provide a queue whether from the developer or as the default class behavior. Again we can see this in the comments for the method + sessionWithConfiguration:
Discussion
Calling this method is equivalent to calling
sessionWithConfiguration:delegate:delegateQueue: with a nil delegate
and queue.
If you would like a more information you should read Apple's Concurrency Programming Guide. This is also useful in understanding Apple's approach to threading in general.
So the completion handler from - dataTaskWithURL:completionHandler: is running on a different queue, with queues normally providing their own thread(s). This leads the main component of your question. Can the main thread exit, while the completion handler is still running?
The concise answer is no, but why?
To answer this answer this we again turn to Apple's documentation, to a document that everyone should read early in their app developer career!
The App Programming Guide
The Main Run Loop
An app’s main run loop processes all user-related events. The
UIApplication object sets up the main run loop at launch time and uses
it to process events and handle updates to view-based interfaces. As
the name suggests, the main run loop executes on the app’s main
thread. This behavior ensures that user-related events are processed
serially in the order in which they were received.
All of the user interact happens on the main thread - no main thread, no main run loop, no app! So the possible condition you question mentions should never exist!
Apple seems more concerned with you doing background work on the main thread. Checkout the section "Move Work off the Main Thread"...
Be sure to limit the type of work you do on the main thread of your
app. The main thread is where your app handles touch events and other
user input. To ensure that your app is always responsive to the user,
you should never use the main thread to perform long-running or
potentially unbounded tasks, such as tasks that access the network.
Instead, you should always move those tasks onto background threads.
The preferred way to do so is to use Grand Central Dispatch (GCD) or
NSOperation objects to perform tasks asynchronously.
I know this answer is long winded, but I felt the need to offer insight and detail in answering your question - "the why" is just as important and it was good review :)
NSURLSessionTasks always run in background by default that's why we have completion handler which can be used when we get response from Web service.
If you don't get any response explore your request URL and whether HTTPHeaderFields are set properly.
Paste your code so that we can help it
I just asked the same question. Then figured out the answer. The thread of the completion handler is setup in the init of the NSURLSession.
From the documentation:
init(configuration configuration: NSURLSessionConfiguration,
delegate delegate: NSURLSessionDelegate?,
delegateQueue queue: NSOperationQueue?)`
queue - A queue for scheduling the delegate calls and completion handlers. If nil, the session creates a serial operation queue for performing all delegate method calls and completion handler calls.*
My code that sets up for completion on main thread:
var session = NSURLSession(configuration: configuration, delegate:nil, delegateQueue:NSOperationQueue.mainQueue())
(Shown in Swift, Objective-C the same) Maybe post more code if this does not solve.
I am working on an user space app for an embedded Linux project using the 2.6.24.3 kernel.
My app passes data between two file nodes by creating 2 pthreads that each sleep until a asynchronous IO operation completes at which point it wakes and runs a completion handler.
The completion handlers need to keep track of how many transfers are pending and maintain a handful of linked lists that one thread will add to and the other will remove.
// sleep here until events arrive or time out expires
for(;;) {
no_of_events = io_getevents(ctx, 1, num_events, events, &timeout);
// Process each aio event that has completed or thrown an error
for (i=0; i<no_of_events; i++) {
// Get pointer to completion handler
io_complete = (io_callback_t) events[i].data;
// Get pointer to data object
iocb = (struct iocb *) events[i].obj;
// Call completion handler and pass it the data object
io_complete(ctx, iocb, events[i].res, events[i].res2);
}
}
My question is this...
Is there a simple way I can prevent the currently active thread from yielding whilst it runs the completion handler rather than going down the mutex/spin lock route?
Or failing that can Linux be configured to prevent yielding a pthread when a mutex/spin lock is held?
You can use the sched_setscheduler() system call to temporarily set the thread's scheduling policy to SCHED_FIFO, then set it back again. From the sched_setscheduler() man page:
A SCHED_FIFO process runs until either
it is blocked by an I/O request, it is
preempted by a higher priority
process, or it calls sched_yield(2).
(In this context, "process" actually means "thread").
However, this is quite a suspicious requirement. What is the problem you are hoping to solve? If you are just trying to protect your linked list of completion handlers from concurrent access, then an ordinary mutex is the way to go. Have the completion thread lock the mutex, remove the list item, unlock the mutex, then call the completion handler.
I think you'll want to use mutexes/locks to prevent race conditions here. Mutexes are by no way voodoo magic and can even make your code simpler than using arbitrary system-specific features, which you'd need to potentially port across systems. Don't know if the latter is an issue for you, though.
I believe you are trying to outsmart the Linux scheduler here, for the wrong reasons.
The correct solution is to use a mutex to prevent completion handlers from running in parallel. Let the scheduler do its job.
Does asynchronous call always create a new thread?
Example:
If JavaScript is single threaded then how can it do an async postback? Is it actually blocking until it gets a callback? If so, is this really an async call?
This is an interesting question.
Asynchronous programming is a paradigm of programming that is principally single threaded, i.e. "following one thread of continuous execution".
You refer to javascript, so lets discuss that language, in the environment of a web browser. A web browser runs a single thread of javascript execution in each window, it handles events (such as onclick="someFunction()") and network connections (such as xmlhttprequest calls).
<script>
function performRequest() {
xmlhttp.open("GET", "someurl", true);
xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function() {
if (xmlhttp.readyState == 4) {
alert(xmlhttp.responseText);
}
}
xmlhttp.send(sometext);
}
</script>
<span onclick="performRequest()">perform request</span>
(This is a nonworking example, for demonstration of concepts only).
In order to do everything in an asynchronous manner, the controlling thread has what is known as a 'main loop'. A main loop looks kind of like this:
while (true) {
event = nextEvent(all_event_sources);
handler = findEventHandler(event);
handler(event);
}
It is important to note that this is not a 'busy loop'. This is kind of like a sleeping thread, waiting for activity to occur. Activity could be input from the user (Mouse Movement, a Button Click, Typing), or it could be network activity (The response from the server).
So in the example above,
When the user clicks on the span, a ButtonClicked event would be generated, findEventHandler() would find the onclick event on the span tag, and then that handler would be called with the event.
When the xmlhttp request is created, it is added to the all_event_sources list of event sources.
After the performRequest() function returns, the mainloop is waiting at the nextEvent() step waiting for a response. At this point there is nothing 'blocking' further events from being handled.
The data comes back from the remote server, nextEvent() returns the network event, the event handler is found to be the onreadystatechange() method, that method is called, and an alert() dialog fires up.
It is worth noting that alert() is a blocking dialog. While that dialog is up, no further events can be processed. It's an eccentricity of the javascript model of web pages that we have a readily available method that will block further execution within the context of that page.
The Javascript model is single-threaded. An asynchronous call is not a new thread, but rather interrupts an existing thread. It's analogous to interrupts in a kernel.
Yes it makes sense to have asynchronous calls with a single thread. Here's how to think about it: When you call a function within a single thread, the state for the current method is pushed onto a stack (i.e. local variables). The subroutine is invoked and eventually returns, at which time the original state is popped off the stack.
With an asynchronous callback, the same thing happens! The difference is that the subroutine is invoked by the system, not by the current code invoking a subroutine.
A couple notes about JavaScript in particular:
XMLHttpRequests are non-blocking by default. The send() method returns immediately after the request has been relayed to the underlying network stack. A response from the server will schedule an invocation of your callback on the event loop as discussed by the other excellent answers.
This does not require a new thread. The underlying socket API is selectable, similar to java.nio.channels in Java.
It's possible to construct synchronous XMLHttpRequest objects by passing false as the third parameter to open(). This will cause the send() method to block until a response has been received from the server, thus placing the event loop at the mercy of network latency and potentially hanging the browser until network timeout. This is a Bad Thing™.
Firefox 3.5 will introduce honest-to-god multithreaded JavaScript with the Worker class. The background code runs in a completely separate environment and communicates with the browser window by scheduling callbacks on the event loop.
In many GUI applications, an async call (like Java's invokeLater) merely adds the Runnable object to its GUI thread queue. The GUI thread is already created, and it doesn't create a new thread. But threads aren't even strictly required for an asynchronous system. Take, for example, libevent, which uses select/poll/kqueue, etc. to make non-blocking calls to sockets, which then fires callbacks to your code, completely without threads.
No, but more than one thread will be involved.
An asynchronous call might launch another thread to do the work, or it might post a message into a queue on another, already running thread. The caller continues and the callee calls back once it processes the message.
If you wanted to do a synchronous call in this context, you'd need to post a message and actively wait for the callback to happen.
So in summary: More than one thread will be involved, but it doesn't necessarily create a new thread.
I don't know about javascript, but for instance in the Windows Forms world, asynchronous invocations can be made without multiple threads. This has to do with the way the Windows Message Pump operates. Basically a Windows Forms application sets up a message queue through which Windows places messages notifying it about events. For instance, if you move the mouse, messages will be placed on that queue. The Windows Forms application will be in an endless loop consuming all the messages that are thrown at it. According to what each message contains it will move windows around, repaint them or even invoke user-defined methods, amongst other things. Calls to methods are identified by delegates. When the application finds a delegate instance in the queue, it happily invokes the method referred by the delegate.
So, if you are in a method doing something and want to spawn some asynchronous work without creating a new thread, all you have to do is place a delegate instance into the queue, using the Control.BeginInvoke method. Now, this isn't actually multithreaded, but if you throw very small pieces of work to the queue, it will look like multithreaded. If, on the other hand you give it a time consuming method to execute, the application will freeze until the method is done, which will look like a jammed application, even though it is doing something.