Here is a sample of what I am trying to accomplish:
public class BaseClass<T>
{
public static T GetByID(int ID)
{
// Need database name here that is determined at design time in the derived class.
var databaseName = "";
// do some stuff involving database name that gets me object by ID here.
return default(T);
}
}
public class DerivedClass : BaseClass<DerivedClass>
{
private string DatabaseName { get; set; }
}
Basically, how would I access the derived "DatabaseName" in the base class static GetByID method?
EDIT: After I posted this, I tried one more thing. I played with attributes earlier, and failed, but I think my brain was mushy. Just tried again and ran a test, and it is working. Here is the updated sample.
public class BaseClass<T>
{
public static T GetByID(int ID)
{
// Need database name here that is determined at design time in the derived class.
var databaseName = ((DatabaseAttribute)typeof(T).GetCustomAttributes(typeof(DatabaseAttribute), true).First()).DatabaseName;
// do some stuff involving database name that gets me object by ID here.
return default(T);
}
}
[Database("MyDatabase")]
public class DerivedClass : BaseClass<DerivedClass>
{
}
public class DatabaseAttribute : Attribute
{
public DatabaseAttribute(string databaseName)
{
DatabaseName = databaseName;
}
public string DatabaseName { get; set; }
}
Base class to derived class is a one-way inheritance: The base class has no knowledge of the existance of a derived class, and so it can't access it.
In addition to that you will have a hard time accessing a non-static property from a static method.
I know you've already answered your own question, but some improvements....
Add a where clause to guarantee inheritance, it means any static methods can make use of inherited methods. You might also want to add the new() clause if you wish to be able to create instances of the inherited class.
public class BaseClass<T> : where T : BaseClass<T>
{
static readonly string databaseName;
static BaseClass() {
// Setup database name once per type of T by putting the initialization in
// the static constructor
databaseName = typeof(T).GetCustomAttributes(typeof(DatabaseAttribute),true)
.OfType<DatabaseAttribute>()
.Select(x => x.Name)
.FirstOrDefault();
}
public static T GetByID(int ID)
{
// Database name will be in the static field databaseName, which is unique
// to each type of T
// do some stuff involving database name that gets me object by ID here.
return default(T);
}
}
[Database("MyDatabase")]
public class DerivedClass : BaseClass<DerivedClass>
{
}
public class DatabaseAttribute : Attribute
{
public DatabaseAttribute(string databaseName)
{
DatabaseName = databaseName;
}
public string DatabaseName { get; set; }
}
Related
I often have Models and Dtos like this:
// DTO class
public class OrderDto
{
public int Id { get; set; }
public DateTime Date { get set; }
public int ProductId { get; set; }
// ...
}
// Model class
public class Order : BaseObject
{
public DateTime Date { get set; }
public Product Product { get; set; }
// ...
}
// Model class
public class Product : BaseObject
{
// ...
}
In order to map my OrderDto to the Order class I have to configure AutoMapper for this particular "association" like so:
CreateMap<OrderDto, Order>()
.ForMember(m => m.Product, d => d.ResolveUsing((d, m) =>
{
return m.Session.GetObjectByKey<Product>(dto.ProductId);
}))
This is quite cumbersome to do this for each case like this. Therefore I was looking into generalizing this behaviour by using a custom TypeConverter class:
public class IntBaseObjectTypeConverter : ITypeConverter<int, BaseObject>
{
private UnitOfWork uow;
// ...
public BaseObjectConvert(int source, BaseObject destination, ResolutionContext context)
{
return uow.Session.GetObjectByKey(typeof(destination), source);
}
}
However, this will fail of course if the destination is null. Unfortunately the ResolutionContext does not give me any clue about the specific type of the destination property.
Now my question is, if there is another way to achieve with AutoMapper what I would like to do?
Please note that I am not using Entity Framework which of course would solve this issue on the model level with foreign key and navigational properties. I use XPO from DevExpress which does not allow foreign key and navigational properties like in Entity Framework.
I'm having trouble implementing Automapper conversion in a situation where the source is a class which should be mapped to one of two derived classes based on a value on the source.
Here's a simplification of my classes:
public class FooContainerDTO
{
public FooDTO Foo { get; set; }
}
public class FooDTO
{
public string Type { get; set; }
//some properties..
}
public class FooContainer
{
public FooBase Foo { get; set; }
}
public abastract class FooBase
{
//some properties..
}
public class FooDerived1 : FooBase
{
//some properties
}
public class FooDerived2 : FooBase
{
//some properties
}
I'm using non-static Automapper so I create a MapperConfiguration from several Profiles at boot and inject the IMapper instance into my DI-container.
I want Automapper to map FooDTO to FooDerived1 when its Type property is "der1" and to FooDerived2 when it is "der2".
I've seen examples on this using the static api, something like this:
Mapper.CreateMap<FooContainerDTO, FooContainer>();
//ForMember configurations etc.
Mapper.CreateMap<FooDTO, FooDerived1>();
//ForMember configurations etc.
Mapper.CreateMap<FooDTO, FooDerived2>();
//ForMember configurations etc.
Mapper.CreateMap<FooDTO, FooBase>()
.ConvertUsing(dto => dto.Type == "der1"
? (FooBase) Mapper.Map<FooDerived1>(dto)
: Mapper.Map<FooDerived2>(dto));
This would map the Foo property of FooContainer to the correct derived type of FooBase.
But how can I do this without the static API?
The IMapper instance is not yet created at the point of configuring the profile.
Is there a way to leverage the overload of ConvertUsing() which takes a Func< ResolutionContext,object >? Can the resolution context give me whatever IMapper is currently being used? I've been looking, but can't find anything usable.
One way to get access to the mapping engine is via your own TypeConverter
abstract class MyTypeConverter<TSource,TDestination> : ITypeConverter<TSource, TDestination>
{
protected ResolutionContext context;
public TDestination Convert(ResolutionContext context)
{
this.context = context;
return Convert((TSource)context.SourceValue);
}
public abstract TDestination Convert(TSource source);
}
You then create an actual implementation like:
class MyTypeMapper : MyTypeConverter<EnumType,EnumTypeView>
{
public override EnumTypeView Convert(EnumType source)
{
return context.Engine.Mapper.Map<EnumTypeID, EnumTypeView>(source.EnumBaseType);
}
}
Except instead of unwrapping an enum structure, you'd check the type and call Map with different types.
I am new at automapper and it is a very good stuff easy to use, but now I have a problem with it. Trying to convert my derived class to base and it gives me
AutoMapper.AutoMapperMappingException
Missing type map configuration or unsupported mapping.
Mapping types: ClientEventDb -> EventId
Database.ClientEventDb -> EventId
Destination path: ClientEvent
Source value:
Event:Login
Automapper wants to convert ClientEventDb to EventId? I don't understand why. EventId is an enum...
Please help me I have run out of ideas.
Here is the code which I run:
ClientEventDb[] edbl;
using (var context = new DbEntities())
{
edbl=context.Events.Take(1000).ToArray();
}
Mapper.CreateMap<ClientEventDb, ClientEvent>();
Console.WriteLine("hello");
return edbl.Select(edb => Mapper.Map<ClientEvent>(edb)).ToArray();
Here are my classes
[Table("events", Schema = "public")]
public class ClientEventDb : ClientEvent
{
public ClientEventDb(string userName, EventId happening, object userObject = null)
: base(userName, happening, userObject)
{
}
public ClientEventDb()
{
}
}
[ProtoContract]
[Table("events", Schema = "public")]
public class ClientEvent : ClientEventBase
{
[ProtoMember(1)]
[Column("username")]
public string UserName { get; private set; }
[ProtoMember(2)]
[Column("time")]
public DateTime DateTime { get; private set; }
[ProtoMember(3)]
[Key]
[Column("id")]
[DatabaseGenerated(DatabaseGeneratedOption.Identity)]
public string Id { get; private set; }
[ProtoMember(4)]
[Column("data")]
public byte[] UserObject { get; set; }
public ClientEvent(string userName,EventId happening, object userObject=null) : base(happening)
{
UserName = userName;
DateTime = DateTime.Now;
//UserObject = null;
if (userObject!=null) throw new NotImplementedException();
}
public ClientEvent()
{
}
protected ClientEvent Clone()
{
return (ClientEvent)MemberwiseClone();
}
}
[ProtoContract]
[ProtoInclude(10, typeof(ClientEvent))]
public class ClientEventBase
{
[Column("eventid")]
[ProtoMember(1)]
public int EventIdValue { get; set; } //must be public because of entity framework
[NotMapped]
public EventId EventId
{
get { return (EventId) EventIdValue; }
set { EventIdValue = (int) value; }
}
public ClientEventBase(EventId eventId)
{
EventId = eventId;
}
public ClientEventBase()
{
}
public override string ToString()
{
return String.Format("Event:{0}",EventId);
}
}
public enum EventId
{
Login = 1,
Logout,
ExitApplication,
}
UPDATE
bugfix: ClientEvent [Key] attribute moved to id property
Solution was this (thx to stuartd):
ClientEventDb[] edbl;
using (var context = new DbEntities())
{
edbl=context.Events.ToArray();
}
Mapper.CreateMap<ClientEventDb, ClientEvent>().ConstructUsing((ClientEventDb src) => new ClientEvent());
return edbl.Select(Mapper.Map<ClientEvent>).ToArray();
AutoMapper is confused as its made to map between similar properties in different classes, you are using it incorrectly - you just need to go from the derived class to the base which does not require AutoMapper. You could use this to do what you need....
ClientEventDb[] edbl;
using (var context = new DbEntities())
{
edbl=context.Events.Take(1000).ToArray();
}
return edbl.Cast<ClientEvent>().ToList();
I'd be looking at why you even feel you need a derived ClientEventDb though - understand we dont have the whole picture here but it seems to do nothing in addition to what the base class already does.
The issue is that ClientEvent has two constructors but you have not told AutoMapper which to use.
If you want it to use your constructor with parameters, change your mapping code to this and it will work:
Mapper.CreateMap<ClientEventDb, ClientEvent>()
.ConstructUsing(src => new ClientEvent(src.UserName, src.EventId));
Or to make AutoMapper use the default constructor:
Mapper.CreateMap<ClientEventDb, ClientEvent>()
.ConstructUsing((ClientEventDb src) => new ClientEvent());
I have a few properties that I don't have a direct mapping in the database for, so I'm using the convention of having another variable that is mapped to the database, and a public variable that will be used to do all of my actual work. The common one is [mapping a boolean property to a char column][1], but I also have a StatusID property whose C# enum is different based on the derived type.
My public property has the [NotMapped] attribute on it, and my internal property has the [Column] attribute. I think there's something that because the public property isn't mapped, it's keeping the other property from being mapped as well.
In my project, I start with an abstract base Message class:
[Table("tblMessage")]
public abstract class Message {
[Column("msgIsSample")]
[Required]
internal string dbIsSample { get; set; }
[Column("msgStatusID")]
internal int? dbStatusId { get; set; }
[NotMapped]
public bool IsSample {
get {
return dbIsSample.ToUpper() == "Y";
}
set {
dbIsSample = value ? "Y" : "N";
}
}
public Message() {
this.IsSample = false;
this.dbStatusId = null;
}
}
Right now I only have a single class implementing the base class, Request:
public class Request : Message {
[NotMapped]
public int Status {
get {
return this.dbStatusId.HasValue ? this.dbStatusId.Value : 1;
}
set {
this.dbStatusId = value;
}
}
public Request()
: base() {
this.Status = 1;
}
}
Here is my context:
public class MyContext : DbContext {
public DbSet<Message> Messages { get; set; }
static MyContext() {
Database.SetInitializer<MyContext>(null);
}
protected override void OnModelCreating(DbModelBuilder modelBuilder) {
modelBuilder.Entity<Message>()
.Map<Request>(m => m.Requires("msgTypeID").HasValue(1));
}
}
Is this something that anyone else has run across? I haven't been able to find anything about why this isn't working, even though this looks like the accepted convention until the EF team adds additional custom mapping. Someone else has to have run across this issue.
When I try to execute this code, I get a DbUpdateException saying that it can't insert a NULL into column "msgIsSample" due to my having set that in the table creation script. This doesn't make any sense because the msgIsSample is defaulted to have a "N".
Instead of making it internal, make it protected internal.
At runtime, EF will subclass your entity dynamically. These extended classes are called dynamic proxies.
EF cannot set your property because it does not have access. To give EF access to your property, it must have either public or protected access. You can still have internal properties, but give subclasses access by adding the protected modifier.
[Table("tblMessage")]
public abstract class Message {
[Column("msgIsSample")]
[Required]
public string dbIsSample { get; protected internal set; }
[Column("msgStatusID")]
public int? dbStatusId { get; protected internal set; }
How can I create a Map with Automapper when in the underlying destination type a property not yet has initialized?
Example:
public class UserAccount
{
public string name { get; set; }
public Dictionary<string,string> properties { get; set; }
}
public class UserAccountOtherType
{
public string name { get; set; }
public string Property1 {get;set; }
}
public static UserAccount CustomMap(UserAccountOtherType type2)
{
AutoMapper.Mapper.CreateMap<UserAccount,UserAccountOtherType>()
.ForMember(dest => dest.properties["Property1", opt => opt.MapFrom(src => (string)src.Property1));
return AutoMapper.Mapper.Map<UserAccount,UserAccountOtherType>(type2);
}
When I try to execute this code it fails because the Dictionary in UserAccount is not yet initialized. I cannot initialize the Object by myself because the UserAccount Class is a Datacontract of a WCF Serviceinterface.
I have to create a Dicationary by myself and assign it to the property.
UserAccount b = new UserAccount();
Dictionary<string,string> properties = new Dictionary<string,string>();
b.properties = properties;
How can I solve this with Automapper? Or is my approach not senseful?
Only way I can think of to do something like this is to write a class that implements AutoMapper.IValueResolver. Then opt.MapFrom... becomes opt.ResolveUsing....FromMember... Probably at that point your destination is the entire dictionary (I think if you leave out the FromMember you get the whole object into your resolver
in your implementation of IValueResolver.Resolve, try breaking into the debugger and checking out the ResolutionContext in source.Context, then once you have your dictionary built, return source.New(myDictionary)