I might sound like noob, I'm real new to this.
I use my college LAN to use internet. My college has blocked many websites(movies, games, porn etc).
I'm not sure about the way that it works. VPNs don't connect. And entering directly the IP addresses of websites is also blocked.
so what i was thinking is that if we could somehow type in google.com and make the DNS translate the ip address of steam.com, could that help bypassing?
If the websites ip are locked, this is not a dns filtering so you have nothing to do with dns. If vpn don't connect, some ports are probably locked. So, you should find a vpn that use the port 443 or use a webproxy.
Related
For example, I've a server hosted at my home with 2 NICs for redundancy obviously.
NIC1 has been assigned with the public IP 103.204.82.22 from ISP1
NIC2 has been assigned with the public IP 144.110.12.64 from ISP2
I can access the server with both IP as usual.
Now, I have a domain acme.com. I've created a subdomain server.acme.com. I want to point server.acme.com to both the IPs so that in case one ISP fails to provide connectivity my server still remains online with the other one.
I've already tried with A and CNAME records. But it isn't working. It's working with A record if I use only one IP for the subdomain.
Can anyone tell me what and how can I point both the IPs to the single subdomain?
Thanks in advance
What you are describing is called DNS round robin, but that won't give you your expected outcome.
Anything you do with DNS if one ISP connection is down, traffic will still go there.
You may have your terminology mixed up a little to start with.
in this case, I suspect you really mean that server.acme.com is a host record, rather than a subdomain. (A subdomain would mean that the server address would be at servername.server.acme.com)
If you create an A record, and put both IP addresses in, and keep the TTL (time to live) short, then when a client wants to contact your machine it will randomly pick one of the addresses. If that address is unavailable, it will move on to the next. If that address stops working, it will keep trying it for the 'TTL' time.
Presuming that the IP addresses don't change, which would be a different problem altogether, then this provide basic load balancing and failover to both connections.
Amazon provide a more advanced type of DNS, that will actively monitor your connections and only provide responses that are live. - https://docs.aws.amazon.com/Route53/latest/DeveloperGuide/routing-policy.html
This might be a tricky question but I'd like to forward a domain to a website that's currently hosted on an IP address on a different port.
This website is not operated so I have no control over the port number.
Specifically http://chaincoinexplorer.com
Should load up this: http://104.238.153.140:3001/
Currently it just redirects. But that's not good enough, and neither is stealth forwarding or iframes or anything of that sort.
If it's impossible through dns or similar, I can just clone the website. But I'd like to make sure there is absolutely no better way.
You can not use DNS to map the request to another port: browser only use DNS to map the hostname to an IP address. So, you MUST use a redirect, as you have done.
I was wondering about security with setting up a domain for WAMP / XAMPP.
Lets say that I want to publish website hosted on my PC with WAMP or XAMPP.
So, I have to register a domain.. and set it in WAMP / XAMPP. But, what would happen, if I set some already used domain in WAMP? For example if I set stackoverflow.com, which is already registered. What would happen? I guess that people will not see my website, but this one (stackoverflow), but how does WAMP or XAMPP recongnise that it is my website?
I am begginer with this matter, so please, dont be angry if its something obious :)
I think you are forgetting about DNS Servers and what they do.
When your browser see's any domain name you enter in the address bar, it goes to a DNS Server and asks, "Please give me the IP address for this domain name". Domain names are only there for us humans as its easier to remember stackoverflow.com than it is to remember an ip address, and that gets even more difficult for us to remember if it is on the IPV6 network.
So unless you can get all the DNS Servers in the universe changed to point the domain name stackoverflow.com to your routers external IP you wont effect anything by setting WAMP or XAMPP to use any existing domain name.
But lets say you do set WAMP/XAMPP to use an existing domain name. You would amend your HOSTS file to tell the Browser where to find that domain like this
127.0.0.1 localhost
127.0.0.1 stackoverflow.com
::1 localhost
::1 stackoverflow.com
This has the effect of seeding the local machines DNS Cache with these addresses. Now the browser will always check the DNS Cache before committing to the expence of asking a DNS Server to get the ip address, so your browser thinks that stackoverflow.com lives on your PC i.e. for IPV4 127.0.0.1 or for IPV6 ::1
All this will do is stop you getting to the real stackoverflow.com because the browser will attempt to connect to 127.0.0.1 every time you use stackoverflow.com as a domain name in the browser address bar instead of going to the real ip address for SO.
Reply to your comment
When you register a domain, you normally get access to an admin panel of some sort, where you set the ip address to use for this domain. This will set the DNS Server of who you purchased the domain from and this is then automatically propergated to all top level DNS Servers.
At that point you would set this to the External IP/WAN IP address of your router.
But be aware, if your ISP allocates IP addresses to you dynamically i.e. not a Static IP address you cannot do this, as your ISP Allocated IP Address is liable to change over time.
As a final note
WAMPServer and XAMPP are designed to be single seat developer tools and not LIVE Servers. That is not to say that the Apache in them is somehow less capable but that there is so much more to securing a web site than first meats the eye.
Also, you may not realise, but a Windows desktop OS is not a good target to run a live web server on. They are configured to be clients and as such have various limitations, mainly that a desptop OS can only manage around 20-30 external connections MAX. So if your site actually takes off, you are going to have a lot of complaints about the speed and accessibility of your site.
This destop limitation cannot be reconfigured.
I have a couple EC2 instances behind an Elastic Load Balancer. These instances serve HTTP requests for a single web site. I recently started looking at the HOST header of the traffic, because I am planning to split my app into virtual hosts.
With some regularity (dozens of times a day), I log a request for a host name that is totally unrelated to my servers. As a couple examples, today I saw requests with the host names ad.adserverplus.com and r1---sn-upfn-hp5e.c.youtube.com. I looked these up and the IP addresses are not the same as any of my servers, nor of the ELB, so I am trying to develop a theory as to how this happens.
I realize that someone could be spoofing the host header, but it happens often enough that I am pretty sure this is not what is going on. My other idea is that somehow there is stale DNS data that just happens to resolve one of those hosts to my IP address, but again this seems like it could happen once in a great while but not regularly. What are some other possibilities, and how might I verify / discredit them?
EDIT
I looked at some of the unexpected host names today, and it seems that they actually do resolve to an IP that is one of the possible IPs that my domain apex resolves to. I use Route 53 for DNS, and I have the zone apex pointed to the ELB, so when I query the IP address for my domain, I get different answers depending on when I ask. So this makes me very curious, how do these IP addresses get assigned to me and how does EC2 make sure they are not co-opting an IP address that someone else is already using.
There are any number of reasons for this. First you should understand that the public host name for your EC2 instances and load balancers have likely been used before. If you have an elastic IP associated with your load balancer, it has also probably been used before.
As such you can get traffic to your servers that is intended for a previous tenant of that hostname of IP address that you are currently using.
One thing you can do is to configure your web servers to reject traffic (respond with 403) to traffic that is not arriving with the proper hostname specified or that comes from a specific external host.
Your IP or your ELBs IP may have at one point in time been an open proxy. meaning that someone is hoping that you would forward the requests on to their intended destination.
but in general open port 80 to the internet and all kinds of bots and zombies will visit you with a pretty constant flow of dodgy requests. I would imagine though that the \ec2 IP ranges would be a particularly juicy range to search for poorly patched websites to exploit.
I was wondering what exactly the standards say about using IPv6/IPv4 tunneling to send a DNS query to a DNS server. Is this a valid thing to do? Does anyone know the RFCs (and sections if possible) that talk about this?
Thanks.
Of course it is possible. Once you have a tunnel, you can do it whatever you want, concerning IPv6.
If you tunnel the trafic f a complete network, other PCs maybe don't even know that they are behind a tunnel.
My PC here, for example, has some IPv4 and some IPv6 entries in the /etc/resolv.conf.